Wouldn’t leasing or renting be more accurate depending on what’s involved and the circumstances?

  • ALostInquirer@lemm.eeOP
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    2 days ago

    Own as in mortgages/loans paid off, I take it? That’s the slight distinction I’m thinking of with expensive items that typically can’t be bought outright. It’s not wholly owned until mortgage/loan is paid off, which you kinda nod towards with your last sentence.

    • Diddlydee@feddit.uk
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      1 day ago

      But you legally own your house if your name is on the title deeds. The deeds say I am the owner regardless of whether there is a mortgage or not. The mortgage is recorded on the title deeds, but it doesn’t change the fact that I am the owner. I can do whatever I want with it.

      In essence, I have a loan against it but in extremis, the bank can force me to sell. I would get anything over the loan amount I sold it for but the bank would have no reason to do this if I continue to pay.