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Joined 1 year ago
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Cake day: August 16th, 2023

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  • it is quite literally named the “land of the blacks” after all that is what Egypt means

    Egypt is from Greek and definitely doesn’t mean that. The Egyptian endonym was kmt (traditionally pronounced as kemet), which is interpreted as “black land” (km means “black”, -t is a nominal suffix, so it might be translated as black-ness, not at all “quite literally land of the blacks”), most likely referring to the fertile black soil around the Nile river. Trying to interpret that as “land of the blacks” should be suspicious already due to the fact people would hardly name themselves after their most ordinary physical characteristic; the Egyptians might call themselves black only if they were surrounded by non-black people and could view that as their own special characteristic, but they certainly neighboured and had contact with black peoples. And either way one has to wonder if the ancient views of white and black skin were meaningfully comparable to modern western ones. On the other hand, the fertile black soil most certainly is a differentia specifica of the settled Egyptian land that is surrounded by a desert.





  • Apparently the French stress the syllables equally, not just the second so it’s a minor difference.

    According to what I’ve read, they do stress the final syllable of the phrase (including multiple words). To foreign ears, this is simplified into always stressing the final syllable.

    I absolutely don’t trust videos such as the one you link because they’re frequently made by non-natives. I’ve personally seen a number of them using obvious non-native (English) pronunciation. Also, I’d say that particular recording has equal prominence on both syllables. But I wouldn’t take it to be representative of French either way.

    https://youtu.be/__bLxInvVsM - this should be better


  • That’s partly what I myself tried to hint at with the question and the parenthetical remarks. Various forms have their own claims to “legitimacy”.

    And the whole issue somewhat surprised me, because I never even considered that there were these different pronunciations at all. I’m not a native English speaker, and I’ve always used a more French-like pronunciation of “Godot” that is used in my native language. I expected neither the inital stress nor the -ough diphthong in English, but a more French-like pronunciation. As much as I feel comfortable in English and use it every single day, some of these quirks in pronunciation can still catch me off-guard.















  • What are some of those assumptions? Maybe it is reductionist, but I haven’t seen you or the Nature article present a more nuanced approach (or an approach at all). And personally this isn’t a topic that I find myself emotionally very invested in, and I’m far from an expert on sociology, so I really would be interested in learning about better approaches. Do your and the Nature article make fewer assumptions for your framing to work?

    Haidt articulated his points and methods very clearly and you shifted away from them without any explanation, as far as I can see. This isn’t just disagreement within the conversation, but a disagreement on what the discussion is supposed to be about. Only now have you actually addressed what is an essental part of Haidt’s argumentation, but still very vaguely.