(not asking for advice, just a thought that popped into my head)
I understand that medical injuries are a factor in something like a missing caution sign, but how is it that someone can sue and win in a case of common sense when a company has no sign? For example, many companies use signs so they are not liable for theft at say a public laundromat but some don’t have this. How do they avoid a lawsuit when they don’t have a sign even though it is common sense? What type of law protects a customer when a business lacks a sign and allows them to win against a business owner?
It actually IS common in the US where I am. All over in local news but on stories in many other states. Like caution Hot on McDonald’s coffee was a lawsuit but I think they ended up settling. I was just asking for example based on what people can tell me about fair business practices laws and how they might apply since I am lacking on law literacy and was curious. But I’m guessing it really only works against big organizations that usually end up settling anyway to avoid the bad publicity. I was just curious how a lawyer would win.
The McDonald’s coffee thing was because it was way hotter than necessary, and caused severe burns. So not as frivolous as it was made to seem.
The lady tried to get McDonald’s to cover her medical bills for the coffee melting her labia shut and they refused. That is why she ended up getting a massive settlement, because McDonald’s had a massive number of severe injuries from their unsafe coffee temps over years.